On 6/10/07, Stavros Macrakis <macrakis at alum.mit.edu> wrote:
> You'd think, then, that A^^-1 would be equivalent to invert(rat(A)), and it
> is to a certain extent.
No, I'm pretty sure most people are going to expect that
A^^-1 is equivalent to invert(A).
There's nothing about ^^ that suggests CRE's are involved somehow.
I'm not opposed to having an inversion function specialized for
CRE's, but if so it should be given a name to indicate that.
Robert