The integrals differ by a constant. :)
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-----Original message-----
From: Ether Jones <maxima at etherjones.us>
To: maxima <maxima at math.utexas.edu>
Sent: Fri, Apr 29, 2011 20:27:38 GMT+00:00
Subject: integrate(1/(1-x))
why is the antiderivative of f1(x) equal to 0 at x=0,
but the antiderivative of f2(x) is undefined at x=0?
are f1(x) and f2(x) not identical functions?
f1(x):=1/(1-x);
integrate(f1(x),x);
f2(x):=-1/(x-1);
integrate(f2(x),x);
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