Is Dr. Math wrong? (Re: [Maxima] 0^0 question)



"Barton Willis" <willisb@unk.edu> writes:

> 0^0 is a can of worms; Stavros and I chatted about it awhile ago
> with no resolution.   To understand some of the issues, you might
> like to start with
>
> http://mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq.0.to.0.power.html
>
> I proposed a new Maxima function, call it pow, such that pow(x,0)
> evaluates to 1 for all real or complex numbers x.  Such a function
> would be useful inside summations, where we generally _do_ want 0^0
> to evaluate to 1.

But where _don't_ we want 0^0 to evaluate ot 1?
Not wanting to open a can of worms, but not sure how to avoid it, why
do we want to avoid setting 0^0=1?
I can think of several reasons why 0^0 should be 1, and none really
that it shouldn't.  I've seen several mentions along the lines of
 For certain f(x),  lim_{x -> 0} f(x) doesn't exist, so
 f(0) shouldn't exist
which I don't really buy.
The Dr. Math article mentioned discusses it, and ends with
  Consensus has recently been built around setting the       
  value of 0^0 = 1 .       
That's how I've always understood it, also.  Is Dr. Math wrong?

Jay