Is Dr. Math wrong? (Re: [Maxima] 0^0 question)



> that it shouldn't.  I've seen several mentions along the lines of
>  For certain f(x),  lim_{x -> 0} f(x) doesn't exist, so
>  f(0) shouldn't exist
> which I don't really buy.

> The Dr. Math article mentioned discusses it, and ends with
>   Consensus has recently been built around setting the       
>   value of 0^0 = 1 .       
> That's how I've always understood it, also.  Is Dr. Math wrong?

In "everyday maths" yes, because you can check it. You can't check what 
maxima is doing internally. And I think it's better to stay on the safe 
side here... (in fact I'm sure you will produce obscure bugs when you 
silently set 0^0 = 1 in limit, taylor, sum, maybe integrate, ...)

Martin