On 04/29/2011 04:27 PM, Ether Jones wrote:
>
> why is the antiderivative of f1(x) equal to 0 at x=0,
>
> but the antiderivative of f2(x) is undefined at x=0?
>
> are f1(x) and f2(x) not identical functions?
>
> f1(x):=1/(1-x);
> integrate(f1(x),x);
>
> f2(x):=-1/(x-1);
> integrate(f2(x),x);
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I put both of the functions into Maple (my school requires us to use it
even though Maxima is way better) with the same result. So it seems that
it is not a Maxima bug, but a mathematical bug :) Also, if you
ratsimp(f1(x)) you get f2(x), so it seems odd that they would have
different antiderivatives. Perhaps a math guru could enlighten us?
--
Michael Checca
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